02-12-2005, 04:43 PM
In Greek there is a definite article. Hence John 1:1, as the rest of the Greek version of the scriptures, uses 'ho theos' meaning 'the god', so as to distinguish 'theos' which can mean a 'god' or 'highly eminent thing'. However, Aramaic has no definite article, which raises even more debate. It really all depends on interpretations at he end of the day and it really is hard to divorce any dogma or philosophy from the interpretation.