Randolph O. Yeager

[gbausc]

Shlama Addai,

Your opponents are merely parroting info. they have never investigated, as do most Greek primacists. The Greek they have learned is the canned variety dished out in most seminaries and theological institutions.

They also have not studied the history of the first century-
namely Josephus, who apart from the NT itself, is the most prolific and informative historian of the time who actually lived in the 1st century . He was a Jewish priest , Pharisee and Roman citizen. According to Josephus, there were scarcely two other Jews in Palestine who could write and speak fluent Greek. I don't believe the fisherman Peter was one of them.
Josephus himself wrote his works in Aramaic , according to his own testimony. He later translated them into Greek. How else would the people of Israel be able to read them ?
The same logic applies to the NT. It was to "The Jew first, and also to the Gentile."
That means "Aramaic first and then in Greek."
And then there is the internal linguistics argument and data to consider.

Have them take a peek at my link:
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://dave.ultimasurf.com/">http://dave.ultimasurf.com/</a><!-- m -->

That is a scientific analysis of the words of the Greek editions of Westcott and Hort, The Byzantine NT and The Peshitta NT. It shows conclusively, I think, that those Greek
versions came from The Peshitta Text.

Got to go. More later.

Dave Bauscher