10-08-2008, 04:05 PM
As I noted in my original posting, Lamsa's Peshitta translation of the whole Bible does not have that Byzantine verse 7. Only his 1940 edition has the KJV version of verse 7, and he clearly states that fact in the footnote. In 1940 his publisherer may have thought this KJV verse was essential.
But we can't blame the Textus Receptus or the KJV since th Greek Orthodox Church has retained that verse in its honored Byztantine Greek version.
Otto
But we can't blame the Textus Receptus or the KJV since th Greek Orthodox Church has retained that verse in its honored Byztantine Greek version.
Otto