10-07-2008, 11:19 PM
Mike Kar Wrote:This is for Stephen Silver, Paul Younan, and Andrew Roth:
I will attempt to be a bit more on the mark and precise here.
(1) Is the word used for "gift" in Acts 2:33 and Acts 11:17 both to be rendered in the singular??
(b) For Acts 2:33 the word "this" linked to "gift" points this out, does it not??
(2) AS far as the "markings" placed above Aramaic words after the manuscripts have been written, were these markings, called Syame, added to the same physical manuscript themselves??
(3) These diacretic markings (Syame) in the case of Acts 2:33 and 11:17 would not change the rendering for "gift" as being in the singualr would it?? In other words, before and after the markings the singular of this word "gift" would and does not change?? yes or no? I take it that this word in both verses is to be in the singular from what I have observed. But I want to confirm this with those affluent in Aramaic.
Thanks tons.
Sincerely seeking,
Mike Karoules
Shlama Akhi Mike:
The word maohowtha is either singular or pleural depending upon the context. In Acts 2:33 the Rukha d'kadusha is as it were singular so maohowtha is singular. In Acts 11:17 it is the same, as stated. When in the case of I Corinthians 12:4 there is pleurality then pleural gifts are rightly assumed of maohowtha. The word remains the same but the context determines whether the word is singular or pleural, without changing the precise meaning of the word. Since diacritics were not part of the original text their value is mainly for pronunciation. Please forgive my transliteration as it may not conform to the actual pronunciation.
In conclusion, and to my meagre understanding, the feminine pronoun hada can mean either this or these depending upon the context as in Lexicon word #5249.
Shlama,
Stephen
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