10-07-2008, 08:33 PM
This is for Stephen Silver, Paul Younan, and Andrew Roth:
I will attempt to be a bit more on the mark and precise here.
(1) Is the word used for "gift" in Acts 2:33 and Acts 11:17 both to be rendered in the singular??
(b) For Acts 2:33 the word "this" linked to "gift" points this out, does it not??
(2) AS far as the "markings" placed above Aramaic words after the manuscripts have been written, were these markings, called Syame, added to the same physical manuscript themselves??
(3) These diacretic markings (Syame) in the case of Acts 2:33 and 11:17 would not change the rendering for "gift" as being in the singualr would it?? In other words, before and after the markings the singular of this word "gift" would and does not change?? yes or no? I take it that this word in both verses is to be in the singular from what I have observed. But I want to confirm this with those affluent in Aramaic.
Thanks tons.
Sincerely seeking,
Mike Karoules
I will attempt to be a bit more on the mark and precise here.
(1) Is the word used for "gift" in Acts 2:33 and Acts 11:17 both to be rendered in the singular??
(b) For Acts 2:33 the word "this" linked to "gift" points this out, does it not??
(2) AS far as the "markings" placed above Aramaic words after the manuscripts have been written, were these markings, called Syame, added to the same physical manuscript themselves??
(3) These diacretic markings (Syame) in the case of Acts 2:33 and 11:17 would not change the rendering for "gift" as being in the singualr would it?? In other words, before and after the markings the singular of this word "gift" would and does not change?? yes or no? I take it that this word in both verses is to be in the singular from what I have observed. But I want to confirm this with those affluent in Aramaic.
Thanks tons.
Sincerely seeking,
Mike Karoules