09-12-2008, 08:10 PM
One scholar <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://journalofbiblicalstudies.org/vitae/Jeffrey_Gibson.htm">http://journalofbiblicalstudies.org/vit ... Gibson.htm</a><!-- m --> put the following question to me about Codex D
As I know no greek I am not sure what point he is making.
Quote:Perhaps you can show me on the basis of the assumption of Peshitta primacy and your knowledge of Syriac why it is that at Acts 8:26 D has ???????????????? ?????????????????? ????????? ???????????????????? as opposed to ????????????????? ??????? ?????????????? ????????? ????????????????????. Is this variant to be explained, let alone solely explained, by reference to what the Peshitta reads at this point.
As I know no greek I am not sure what point he is making.

