07-11-2008, 05:08 PM 
		
	
	
		Acts 9:36
36.There was a female disciple in Joppa, whose name was Tabitha. She was rich in good works and in the charity which she was doing.
* Greek has ???tabiya h diermhneuomenh legetai dorkav???- ???Tabitha, which, being translated, means Dorcas (a gazelle).??? dorkav -???Dorkas??? occurs twice in this chapter in the Greek texts, which according to the Greek of this verse, is a Greek translation of an Aramaic word: 5000 Tabiya Tabitha tab-ee-thah??? of Aramaic origin, cf 06646 atybj; ; n pr f AV-Tabitha 2; 2 Tabitha =" female gazelle" ??? (1) the name of the woman that Peter raised from the dead . -(Thayers Greek-English Lexicon). Is it not strange that the Greek text has the Aramaic ???Tabitha??? transliterated in Greek letters and then states ???which being translated means Dorcas???? We do not find this phenomenon in The Peshitta, that is, we do not find Greek words transliterated into Aramaic letters and then translated into Aramaic words. The Greek NT has this phenomenon recorded at least six times in The Gospels and in Acts. Why in the name of Sam Hill would Luke have written this in Greek originally if the persons , language and culture involved were Aramaean? And why would we have a Greek translation of a name if the original was Greek? And why would we have a Greek translation of a person???s name at all , unless it were a highly significant name with a highly significant meaning, like that of Meshikha-???Christ??? or ???Kaypha??? ??? ???Peter????
The fact that the Greek texts have both ???Tabitha??? and ???Dorkas??? in this passage with the statement ,???this is translated into [Greek] Dorkas??? is a giveaway of the fact that the Greek text is not the original language but a translation language of a Semitic original (probably Aramaic). This writer believes the Greek translation of ???Tabitha??? was a faux pas; names are hardly ever to be translated into the target language, but simply transliterated in their original form. The fact that this one was transliterated and translated into Greek twice in this chapter testifies powerfully to the Greek as a translation of an Aramaic original. See v. 39 also.
Dave
	
	
36.There was a female disciple in Joppa, whose name was Tabitha. She was rich in good works and in the charity which she was doing.
* Greek has ???tabiya h diermhneuomenh legetai dorkav???- ???Tabitha, which, being translated, means Dorcas (a gazelle).??? dorkav -???Dorkas??? occurs twice in this chapter in the Greek texts, which according to the Greek of this verse, is a Greek translation of an Aramaic word: 5000 Tabiya Tabitha tab-ee-thah??? of Aramaic origin, cf 06646 atybj; ; n pr f AV-Tabitha 2; 2 Tabitha =" female gazelle" ??? (1) the name of the woman that Peter raised from the dead . -(Thayers Greek-English Lexicon). Is it not strange that the Greek text has the Aramaic ???Tabitha??? transliterated in Greek letters and then states ???which being translated means Dorcas???? We do not find this phenomenon in The Peshitta, that is, we do not find Greek words transliterated into Aramaic letters and then translated into Aramaic words. The Greek NT has this phenomenon recorded at least six times in The Gospels and in Acts. Why in the name of Sam Hill would Luke have written this in Greek originally if the persons , language and culture involved were Aramaean? And why would we have a Greek translation of a name if the original was Greek? And why would we have a Greek translation of a person???s name at all , unless it were a highly significant name with a highly significant meaning, like that of Meshikha-???Christ??? or ???Kaypha??? ??? ???Peter????
The fact that the Greek texts have both ???Tabitha??? and ???Dorkas??? in this passage with the statement ,???this is translated into [Greek] Dorkas??? is a giveaway of the fact that the Greek text is not the original language but a translation language of a Semitic original (probably Aramaic). This writer believes the Greek translation of ???Tabitha??? was a faux pas; names are hardly ever to be translated into the target language, but simply transliterated in their original form. The fact that this one was transliterated and translated into Greek twice in this chapter testifies powerfully to the Greek as a translation of an Aramaic original. See v. 39 also.
Dave
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I also have articles at BibleCodeDigest.com

