Greek-isms???????

[Yochanan5730]

Shalom~Shlama Yochanan,

Really the way I understand it, the Church of the East came out of the synagogues in Babylon and Adiabene, so we brought along with us the common "Targum" of that time and geographic location, and that was what is known today as the Peshitta Tanakh~OT. The reading of "Namusa" I gave you from Deut. is from the Peshitta Targum.

In Beth-Nahrin, the common language was Aramaic (eastern) and since the people needed the Tanakh in a language they could understand, the Peshitta OT was made from the same Hebrew original that also lay behind the Masoretic and Septuagint.

The Mandeans (a gnostic sect in southern Iraq) also speak Aramaic, and they use this word from the Greek. I think it happened to creep into the language during the reign of Alexander in Mesopotamia. So by the time Meshikha came it was centuries in common use as a loan-word originally of Greek origin. Its presence, again, does nothing to harm our Aramaic primacy position, since it was used in an Aramaic translation of a Hebrew original (Deuteronomy). That proves that "Namusa" was simply an Aramaicised Greek word in common use before NT times.

+Shamasha Paul

Shalom Paul <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->

well, now i will have to find the OT peshitta text in Aramaic, that may be difficult. the University (Gonzaga) has the New Testament Peshitta and Peshitto. thank you for telling me some history. the funny thing is, is that i already knew some of that but stashed it away in my brain somewhere lol (i do that alot).

i did find the other two "Greek-isms" in my notes, but i didn't write the scriptural references for them. one was Arche, which i didn't write any info on, only "Arche" with "geekism" (yes GEEKism) written next to it. i don't even remember what it meant <!-- s:eh: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/eh.gif" alt=":eh:" title="Eh" /><!-- s:eh: --> and the other i got from the Brittish and Foreign Bible Society's (BFBS) PeshittO (1826) 2 John 7 (i was able to remember that one): [font=estrangelo (v1.1)]Sw=srky=n0[/font] (anti Christ).

i have learned a little about the difference between PeshittA and PeshittO <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> and for the record, i am not against any possibility for Aramaic Primacy, not one bit <!-- s:| --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/neutral.gif" alt=":|" title="Neutral" /><!-- s:| --> i did learn something about the PeshittO actually being translated back from the Greek (?) am i correct concerning this information? or am i remembering mixed memories (which happens to me sometimes, being hyperkenetic <!-- s:onfire: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/onfire.gif" alt=":onfire:" title="On Fire" /><!-- s:onfire: --> ).

there is also another thing that struck me funny. i received a manuscript that i am using for my translation/interpretation from Gonzaga university. in the fifth chapter of 1 John, there are two different versions for certain verses! one version of these verses has 25 verses instead of the standard 21. it is written with the same script as the Khaburis (estrangelo?) and your interlinear. but i have also looked at other Khaburis manuscripts that didn't have these two different versions of verses. can you shed any light on this situation? or is this manuscript i have of 1 John an odd-ball manuscript? i do not know the date of the manuscript i have received, but i do know it's older than me (38 w/emotional maturity of a 15 y/o <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/blush.gif" alt="" title="Blush" /><!-- s --> ) lol.

also, in editing...
i have looked at 1 John 5 in the BFBS, and it has the standard 21 verses also...

anyhoo, much love and blessings, and thanks...
Z'ev Yochanan