06-18-2008, 02:26 PM
Shlama Akhay kulkown,
I would like to give some examples supporting Peshitta primacy which I discovered while translating The Peshitta NT. These I have printed in my Original Aramaic New Testament in Plain English; many are also in my Interlinear:
The following are from Acts 18:
5. And when Shila and Timotheos had come from Macedonia, Paulus was constrained in the word* because the Jews were opposing him and blaspheming as he was testifying to them that Yeshua is The Messiah.
??? Majority Greek & TR Greek has ???in his spirit???. Critical Greek agrees with The Peshitta reading.Following are the two readings in Pesher Habakkuk Dead Sea Scroll script:
)tlmb-???in the word???
)xwrb-???in the spirit???
I see 80% correlation between the letters of each (4/5). The two readings in Greek are: logw & pneumati.They have 0% correlation. How about in Greek uncial (capital letters) script? LOGW & PNEUMATI - 0% still! The Greek primacy theory just keeps taking a beating, for almost every example of Greek variant readings I can find!
6. And he shook his clothes and he said to them, "From now on I am clean; I myself go to the Gentiles."
The Greek mss. have, ???He said unto them, ???Your blood is upon your head???I am clean; henceforth to the nations I will go on.?????? Just a thought: One does not cleanse oneself of blood by shaking his clothes. The action does not fit the metaphor. Now look at the following two Aramaic phrases in Ashuri script an attempt to explain the Greek reading:
dSyrl lvw dmd ??????Your blood also is upon your head???
htybl lvw wmt ??? ???there & unto his house??? (phrase in verse 7)
(Please excuse the above blue Dalets for final Kaph and the blue distorted final Nun; Sil Ezra font does not provide final Kaph or final Nun)
In Dead Sea Scroll Script:
\$yrl l(w \md ??????Your blood also is upon your head???
htybl l(w }mt ??? ???there & unto his house??? (phrase in verse 7)
Estrangela script:
[font=estrangelo (v1.1)]K$yrl l(w Kmd[/font]??????Your blood also is upon your head???
[font=estrangelo (v1.1)]htybl l(w Nmt[/font] ??? ???there & entered his house??? (phrase in verse 7)
The two phrases in Dead Sea Scroll script (also called Herodian) show high correlation between letters of about 82%.
Ashuri and Estrangela scripts show about 73% letter correlations.
The Aramaic of the first phrase above is in the singular. A Greek translator would most likely correct this to read the plural ???your???- umwn instead of the singular ???your??? - sou , since Paul was addressing a large group in verse 6. In this scenario, it looks like the Greek translator???s eye went inadvertantly from verse 6 to verse 7 before he had finished translating, translated the 3 word phrase above and misread it as shown in DSS script, and then went back again to finish verse 6. The translator strangely would have then correctly translated the same Aramaic phrase as ??? ???There & unto the house???, when translating v. 7.
This next is from Acts 19:20:
Acts 19:20
And thus with great power the faith of God was increasing in strength and growing.
(Greek mss. have, tou kuriou o logov huxanen -???The word of the Lord increased???.) Here are both readings in Pesher DSS Aramaic:
)hl)d htwnmyh- ???the Faith of God???
)hl)d htlm-wh-???The word of God???
(???It is??? has been pushed into ???The word??? without spacing.) Greek sometimes interprets "Alaha" as "Kurios"-"Lord".(I have modified the above example slightly from my example in the book.) There is direct correlation in 7 out of 11 letters in DSS Aramaic between the two readings. The Greek for ???Faith of God??? is tou qeou j pistiv; Compare that to tou kuriou o logov-???The word of the Lord???. Only 3 letters out of twelve look similar in the Greek readings. This does not bode well for the Greek primacy position.
The following is from Acts 23:9
Acts 23:9
And there was a great noise. Some of the Scribes stood on the side of The Pharisees and were contending with them and they were saying, ???We find no evil in this man, but if a spirit or an Angel has spoken with him, what is there in that?"
* The Majority Greek text and TR (KJV Greek) has mj qeomacwmen -???Let us not fight God???. The Following are the actual Peshitta reading with the 2nd & 3rd words combined (hbty)) and the majority Greek reading in Aramaic below it, both in Dead Sea Scroll Aramaic script:
Peshitta reading in DSS Aramaic: )dhb hb.ty) )nm??????What is there in that ????
Maj. Greek reading in DSS Aram.: )rmb {wqn}nx )ld- ???Let us not resist The Lord???
(I have also modified the above example slightly from my example in the book.)
The Greek for "What is there in that would likely be: ti estin en ekeinw, which looks nothing like the Greek reading,mj qeomacwmen -???Let us not fight God???. An hypothetical Aramaic translator would never mistake the one Greek phrase for the other.
The two readings are very similar looking in the DSS Aramaic script, leading me to believe that a Greek translator mistook the one for the other and gave us the Majority Greek reading as found in The King James Version of this verse. The Critical Greek has neither the Majority Greek reading or Peshitta reading. It merely trails off at the end with: ???But if an spirit or a angel has spoken with him.??? That is a very poor and defective reading; it is not even a sentence.
I will give more of these later. They take some time to convert fonts for the forum. There are plenty to show in the epistles.
Blessings
Dave Bauscher - aramaicnt.com
I would like to give some examples supporting Peshitta primacy which I discovered while translating The Peshitta NT. These I have printed in my Original Aramaic New Testament in Plain English; many are also in my Interlinear:
The following are from Acts 18:
5. And when Shila and Timotheos had come from Macedonia, Paulus was constrained in the word* because the Jews were opposing him and blaspheming as he was testifying to them that Yeshua is The Messiah.
??? Majority Greek & TR Greek has ???in his spirit???. Critical Greek agrees with The Peshitta reading.Following are the two readings in Pesher Habakkuk Dead Sea Scroll script:
)tlmb-???in the word???
)xwrb-???in the spirit???
I see 80% correlation between the letters of each (4/5). The two readings in Greek are: logw & pneumati.They have 0% correlation. How about in Greek uncial (capital letters) script? LOGW & PNEUMATI - 0% still! The Greek primacy theory just keeps taking a beating, for almost every example of Greek variant readings I can find!
6. And he shook his clothes and he said to them, "From now on I am clean; I myself go to the Gentiles."
The Greek mss. have, ???He said unto them, ???Your blood is upon your head???I am clean; henceforth to the nations I will go on.?????? Just a thought: One does not cleanse oneself of blood by shaking his clothes. The action does not fit the metaphor. Now look at the following two Aramaic phrases in Ashuri script an attempt to explain the Greek reading:
dSyrl lvw dmd ??????Your blood also is upon your head???
htybl lvw wmt ??? ???there & unto his house??? (phrase in verse 7)
(Please excuse the above blue Dalets for final Kaph and the blue distorted final Nun; Sil Ezra font does not provide final Kaph or final Nun)
In Dead Sea Scroll Script:
\$yrl l(w \md ??????Your blood also is upon your head???
htybl l(w }mt ??? ???there & unto his house??? (phrase in verse 7)
Estrangela script:
[font=estrangelo (v1.1)]K$yrl l(w Kmd[/font]??????Your blood also is upon your head???
[font=estrangelo (v1.1)]htybl l(w Nmt[/font] ??? ???there & entered his house??? (phrase in verse 7)
The two phrases in Dead Sea Scroll script (also called Herodian) show high correlation between letters of about 82%.
Ashuri and Estrangela scripts show about 73% letter correlations.
The Aramaic of the first phrase above is in the singular. A Greek translator would most likely correct this to read the plural ???your???- umwn instead of the singular ???your??? - sou , since Paul was addressing a large group in verse 6. In this scenario, it looks like the Greek translator???s eye went inadvertantly from verse 6 to verse 7 before he had finished translating, translated the 3 word phrase above and misread it as shown in DSS script, and then went back again to finish verse 6. The translator strangely would have then correctly translated the same Aramaic phrase as ??? ???There & unto the house???, when translating v. 7.
This next is from Acts 19:20:
Acts 19:20
And thus with great power the faith of God was increasing in strength and growing.
(Greek mss. have, tou kuriou o logov huxanen -???The word of the Lord increased???.) Here are both readings in Pesher DSS Aramaic:
)hl)d htwnmyh- ???the Faith of God???
)hl)d htlm-wh-???The word of God???
(???It is??? has been pushed into ???The word??? without spacing.) Greek sometimes interprets "Alaha" as "Kurios"-"Lord".(I have modified the above example slightly from my example in the book.) There is direct correlation in 7 out of 11 letters in DSS Aramaic between the two readings. The Greek for ???Faith of God??? is tou qeou j pistiv; Compare that to tou kuriou o logov-???The word of the Lord???. Only 3 letters out of twelve look similar in the Greek readings. This does not bode well for the Greek primacy position.
The following is from Acts 23:9
Acts 23:9
And there was a great noise. Some of the Scribes stood on the side of The Pharisees and were contending with them and they were saying, ???We find no evil in this man, but if a spirit or an Angel has spoken with him, what is there in that?"
* The Majority Greek text and TR (KJV Greek) has mj qeomacwmen -???Let us not fight God???. The Following are the actual Peshitta reading with the 2nd & 3rd words combined (hbty)) and the majority Greek reading in Aramaic below it, both in Dead Sea Scroll Aramaic script:
Peshitta reading in DSS Aramaic: )dhb hb.ty) )nm??????What is there in that ????
Maj. Greek reading in DSS Aram.: )rmb {wqn}nx )ld- ???Let us not resist The Lord???
(I have also modified the above example slightly from my example in the book.)
The Greek for "What is there in that would likely be: ti estin en ekeinw, which looks nothing like the Greek reading,mj qeomacwmen -???Let us not fight God???. An hypothetical Aramaic translator would never mistake the one Greek phrase for the other.
The two readings are very similar looking in the DSS Aramaic script, leading me to believe that a Greek translator mistook the one for the other and gave us the Majority Greek reading as found in The King James Version of this verse. The Critical Greek has neither the Majority Greek reading or Peshitta reading. It merely trails off at the end with: ???But if an spirit or a angel has spoken with him.??? That is a very poor and defective reading; it is not even a sentence.
I will give more of these later. They take some time to convert fonts for the forum. There are plenty to show in the epistles.
Blessings
Dave Bauscher - aramaicnt.com
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I also have articles at BibleCodeDigest.com