Mt 1:25 her son, the firstborn; or her firstborn son?

[gbausc]

Shlama Akhi Jerzy,

I would say the Greek NT word order in general is Semitic (Verb-subject, noun-adjective) and that the (Definite Article, Noun, Definite Article, Adjective) examples
which do not occur in non-Biblical Greek are strong indicators that the Greek NT is translational Greek, as is The LXX.

I have much better demonstrations of Aramaic primacy in my translations, in almost every NT book, illustrated using Dead Sea Scroll Aramaic script alongside Greek words, demonstrating how a Greek translator misread one letter, or sometimes two Aramaic letters, to create a Greek reading which differs significantly from the Peshitta reading. Many Greek variant readings can also be explained in the same way. Greek readings cannot very well explain Peshitta readings when they differ.

There are over 120 such illustrations with several hundred more notes showing Aramaic primacy. I have no doubt there are hundreds more to be mined.

Blessings,

Dave