Of Maidens and the Mishna (to Dawid)

[Dawid]

It has never been my contention that only Hebrew was spoken, but that both Hebrew and Aramaic were spoken at the time. It may well be that in this case Aramaic was being spoken.

Well then, absent any evidence that Yeshua said anything that could only have been Hebrew, may we proceed with our studies here....or are we wasting our time?

If anything was originally written in Hebrew, then there's only one reality that we face: we no longer have the original words of Meshikha or the NT writers, and are in the same boat as the Greeks. The original has been lost for the last 2,000 years and we've been wasting our time here with Aramaic.

Isn't that what THEY want us to believe?

Ooh...they, Mr. Younan? <!-- s:lookround: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/lookround.gif" alt=":lookround:" title="Look Round" /><!-- s:lookround: --> You mean the notorious them?!?! *looks all around and drops his voice to a whisper* did you hear that from the boogieman? <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/rolleyes.gif" alt="" title="Roll Eyes" /><!-- s -->
I've already gone over the grammar. I think that, based on Biblical Hebrew, we can be certain that the grammatical forms we observed in the Peshitta are not original to Aramaic and that the Aramaic community probably received them from the Peshitta, rather than vice versa.
Of course we no longer have the original words of Mashiakh, well...per se. We are not exactly in the same boat as the Greeks. We can be more sure when using the Peshitta because Aramaic is closer to Hebrew and so it more closely preserves the original. The Peshitta also probably preserves the originals of most of the letters, at least.

Shalom,
Dawid