John 19:19 (YHWH?)

[Paul Younan]

Shlama all,

Well, it seems to me that if a 1st or 2nd century Jew complained , "Why Aramaic? In the Holy Land, let them speak Hebrew or Greek." , it is plain that the language being spoken in the Holy Land was not Hebrew or Greek.
It also means that Aramaic was not Hebrew, nor was Hebrew, Aramaic.
It also means that Aramaic was the one language common to Israel; Israel was not bilingual, speaking Aramaic and Hebrew, or Hebrew & Greek, or trilingual, speaking Aramaic,Hebrew & Greek!.

Just a thought.

Dave Bauscher

Excellent observation.