John 19:19 (YHWH?)

[Paul Younan]

Pardon me. I should not have said "exclusively." The point is that it is not proper Aramaic.
I am largely copying from "A New Look at the Language Jesus Spoke." You are right about that.

Improper Aramaic?

Do you see a gloss in Luke 22:15 in the Aramaic of the Peshitta?

Any need for the author to explain to his Aramaic readership this improper infinitive absolute followed by a finite verb to convey emphasis?

It is very common in Aramaic, and very proper indeed.

The author of "A New Look at the Language Jesus Spoke" should have a new look at the evidence. There's no Hebrew in "Tlitha Qumi", "Eli, Eli lamana Shbaqthani", "Ephphatha", "Raqa", "Mammona", "Qurbana", "Kepha", etc. No way, shape or form.

I brought up Yiddish-from-German in this thread precisely because the relation of Jewish-Aramaic to Standard-Aramaic is roughly comparable to the relation of Yiddish-to-German, although the differences between Jewish-Aramaic and Standard-Aramaic was a lot less marked.

Yes, you will find an occasional Hebrew nuance in the Aramaic of Meshikha or the disciples, in which case you normally find a gloss in the Aramaic NT (to standardize the Aramaic.) "Golgotha" is a good example of this. Standard Aramaic is Qarqiptha, Judeo-Aramaic is Golgotha. "Khaqel-Dam" is another example where the Peshitta glosses to standard Aramaic to explain.

Neither is Hebrew, both are Judeo-Aramaic.