What is Jerome's "Hebrew" Gospel?

[judge]

Looking at the underlined portion, I have been unable to locate the source for this quote in the Peshitta or in any of the Hebrew versions of Matthew. From which source is Jerome quoting? Is this from the Diatesseron?

In Messiah,
Wayne

Hiya, one clue here may be found in Jerome "Lives of Illustrious men Book 3 chapt 2.

One translation reads.

Matthew, who is also Levi, and from a tax collector came to be
an emissary first of all evangelists composed a Gospel of
Messiah in Judea in the Hebrew language and letters, for the
benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed, who
translated it into Greek is not sufficiently ascertained.
Furthermore, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the
library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently
collected. I also was allowed by the Nazarenes who use this
volume in the Syrian city of Borea to copy it. In which is to be
remarked that, wherever the evangelist... makes use of the
testimonies of the Old Scripture, he does not follow the
authority of the seventy translators , but that of the Hebrew

Whilst another translation reads.

Matthew, also called Levi, apostle and aforetimes publican, composed a gospel of Christ at first published in Judea in Hebrew for the sake of those of the circumcision who believed, but this was afterwards translated into Greek though by what author is uncertain. The Hebrew itself has been preserved until the present day in the library. at Caesarea which Pamphilus so diligently gathered. I have also had the opportunity of having the volume described to me by the Nazarenes of Beroea, a city of Syria,who use it. In this it is to be noted that wherever the Evangelist, whether on his own account or in the person of our Lord the Saviour quotes the testimony of the Old Testament he does not follow the authority of the translators of the Septuagint but the Hebrew. Wherefore these two forms exist "Out of Egypt have I called my son," and "for he shall be called a Nazarene."

Did he have it described to him or did he copy it?

If he had it described to him then it would be easy to see how error crept in.
If he copied it error could still have crept in depending how good Jeromes Hebrew/Aramaic was.
Just some ideas.

Added in edit:
I found another translation as well.

Matthew -- who was also (called) Levi -- was an apostle and former tax-collector. He first composed the gospel of Christ in Hebrew letters and words in Judea for those from the circumcision who had believed. Who later translated (his gospel) into Greek, is not quite certain. Moreover, the Hebrew itself is still held today in the library at Caesarea (Maritima), which the martyr Pamphilus carefully put together. I also was able to make a copy from the Nazarenes, who use this volume in Beroea, a city in Syria. In it, it is to be noted that whenever the evangelist made full use of testimonies from the ancient scriptures -- either on his own or from the Lord Savior -- he did not follow the authority of Seventy translators [i.e., the Greek Septuagint], but of the Hebrew. These are two (examples) of this: "Out of Egypt I have called my Son" (Matt 2:15) and_ "For he shall be called a Nazarene"

Curiously Jerome seems familiar with a different Hebrew version than we have today I believe.
Or was he just mixed up?

I did have another look at Jerome's stuff on Matthew at infidels once.
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.iidb.org/vbb/archive/index.php/t-72816.html">http://www.iidb.org/vbb/archive/index.php/t-72816.html</a><!-- m -->

If you wade through you will find some interesting discussion mainly from a poster named Amlodhi.

All the best