Linguistics 101 - Languages and Dialects

[Paul Younan]

Your question as to why the syriac in this section is better (as if the particular language made more difference than the truth itself), than the greek, here is the answer:

Dave, how would you know what the "truth itself" was if you were looking at the Greek?

Did Shimun Keepa make this speech in front of his Jewish audience in Greek?

Are you insane?

I hate to have to do this...take your time with your answer:

They had a better greek or old latin copy to translate from...

And where is this better greek or latin copy? Are you admitting that there were better "greek or latin" manuscripts around - and that you no longer have the original word of God, Dave?

...or they made a correction when they translated it into the syriac.

Really? Do you have any evidence of this to support your view? Or are we to simply take your word for it.....is "she" speaking to you again, Dave?

The rest of your post is bunk, as it all rests on these two untenable and unproven guesses you made in your desperation.

And Dave, if you took an entry-level course in Semitic linguistics (any Semitic language), you would know the idiom "to make live" is the Semitic way of saying "save." And the Peshitta reading "day by day" does, indeed, denote a continual action. But the Greek loses the idiom of "make alive" and "save", now doesn't it? That's the sense used in the OT to which you hark back.

Are you tired of Acts 2:24 - do you want to discuss a more extensive example? I'm not continuously harping about Acts 2:24 because I have nothing else - I have plenty of examples that are far more damning to your various Greek textual families. Dave, Acts 2:24 is being brought up continuously to you because you won't even understand the other examples with your current level of knowledge. Do you understand?

Dave, bas! (Aramaic for "stop!")