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John 1:1
#9
Also, an interesting question has arisen in my mind due to the fact that there is no definite article in Aramaic. I was a bit intrigued, and turned to the Aramaic portions of the Old Testament which were translated into Greek in the LXX. I see that the Greek definite article is used in the translation of the Aramaic sections. That causes me to wonder how that would work. But I suppose that is a question for another day...
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Messages In This Thread
John 1:1 - by Dunedain - 02-12-2005, 05:37 AM
[No subject] - by peshitta_enthusiast - 02-12-2005, 07:24 AM
[No subject] - by Dunedain - 02-12-2005, 01:46 PM
Hey Elassar! - by Andrew Gabriel Roth - 02-12-2005, 03:20 PM
[No subject] - by The Lector - 02-12-2005, 04:43 PM
[No subject] - by peshitta_enthusiast - 02-12-2005, 11:16 PM
[No subject] - by The Lector - 02-13-2005, 09:03 AM
[No subject] - by Dunedain - 02-13-2005, 03:30 PM
[No subject] - by Dunedain - 02-13-2005, 03:36 PM
Deity of Jesus and The Peshitta - by gbausc - 02-13-2005, 04:16 PM
[No subject] - by Andrew Gabriel Roth - 02-13-2005, 04:51 PM
John 1 - by gbausc - 02-13-2005, 04:57 PM
[No subject] - by peshitta_enthusiast - 02-13-2005, 07:08 PM
[No subject] - by The Lector - 02-14-2005, 11:58 AM
God was The Word - by gbausc - 02-15-2005, 03:39 PM
[No subject] - by Dunedain - 02-15-2005, 06:40 PM
[No subject] - by peshitta_enthusiast - 02-15-2005, 08:37 PM

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