02-13-2005, 03:36 PM
Also, an interesting question has arisen in my mind due to the fact that there is no definite article in Aramaic. I was a bit intrigued, and turned to the Aramaic portions of the Old Testament which were translated into Greek in the LXX. I see that the Greek definite article is used in the translation of the Aramaic sections. That causes me to wonder how that would work. But I suppose that is a question for another day...

