02-11-2005, 09:35 PM
Hello Lector,
The Greek NT records Christ quoting the Septuagint. This is because the Greek NT scribes standardized any OT quotes they found in the NT to the Septuagint.
The Aramaic NT does not record Christ quoting the Septuagint. Christ spoke in Aramaic, and in order for him to quote the Septuagint, he would have had to have been speaking Greek to the people He was preaching to.
In certain cases the Aramaic NT records Christ quoting, and in other cases He is paraphrasing and not quoting at all. For example:
![[Image: matt215.jpg]](http://www.peshitta.org/images/matt215.jpg)
Notice the paraphrasing happening in this example. Meshikha is not quoting from anything at all, especially not the Septuagint.
Direct quotes from the OT are rare. People simply did not do that at that time. Paraphrasing was more of the style back then, as we can tell from the Aramaic Targums produced during the period.
The Greek NT records Christ quoting the Septuagint. This is because the Greek NT scribes standardized any OT quotes they found in the NT to the Septuagint.
The Aramaic NT does not record Christ quoting the Septuagint. Christ spoke in Aramaic, and in order for him to quote the Septuagint, he would have had to have been speaking Greek to the people He was preaching to.
In certain cases the Aramaic NT records Christ quoting, and in other cases He is paraphrasing and not quoting at all. For example:
Notice the paraphrasing happening in this example. Meshikha is not quoting from anything at all, especially not the Septuagint.
Direct quotes from the OT are rare. People simply did not do that at that time. Paraphrasing was more of the style back then, as we can tell from the Aramaic Targums produced during the period.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
![[Image: sig.jpg]](http://www.peshitta.org/images/sig.jpg)