09-23-2003, 07:08 AM
I mentioned this already on another thread, but I believe this language called 'Hebrew' to be merely a dialect of the same source language we label as 'Aramaic'. 'Habar' refers to those who crossed over as I said before. The fact that 'Hebrew' also took a script called 'Ktav Ashuri' which literally means 'Assyrian Writing' shows the close link. The key question is, when in linguistic terms do we begin to demarcate between a 'language' and a 'dialect'? For me, 'Hebrew' is not sufficiently distinct [and neither are many other Semetic languages] enough from the source language to be regarded as a different 'language'.
With regard to what Kiraz said, I posted it because he is a Jacobite who believes that the Peshitta is a translation from the Greek, whereas many Eastern Christians don't believe this to be the case. I am not saying he is right or wrong, or anyone here is either. I agree that some words probably make more sense interpreted in such a language as 'Aramaic' because one word can have several distinct meanings unlike in 'Indo-European' languages such as Greek.
With regard to what Kiraz said, I posted it because he is a Jacobite who believes that the Peshitta is a translation from the Greek, whereas many Eastern Christians don't believe this to be the case. I am not saying he is right or wrong, or anyone here is either. I agree that some words probably make more sense interpreted in such a language as 'Aramaic' because one word can have several distinct meanings unlike in 'Indo-European' languages such as Greek.
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