11-12-2004, 02:35 PM
Shlama Akhi Otto,
You have ignored the Hebrew root "Bar", meaning "Brutish, stupid, barbarous"-(Strong's Concordance). The root goes back to 1500 B.C. , being used in Exodus , Numbers and Deuteronomy. There it means "burning", "consuming".
It is used in the sense of "brutish,barbarous" in Psalms 49:11,73:22,94:8 & Proverbs 12:1,30:2.
These are all much earlier than Herodotus.
The LXX translated "Barim" (plural)myrvb as "barbaros" in Ezekiel 21:36.
Brown,Driver & Briggs Hebrew Lexicon gives the definition of this word in that place as "inhuman, cruel, barbarous men". Ezekiel lived long before Herodotus.
The Aramaic "Barbaria" is what Paul and I have said it is. It is the combination of two Aramaic roots - "Bar" & "Baria"-
"Son of the wilderness" or "Son of the foreigner". These Aramaic roots really mean these things for as far back as there were Aramaic roots. How is it that "Barbaria" , which sounds more like "Barbarian" than the Greek word , "Barbaros", means "nomad", or "foreigner", etymylogically, while the Greek word cannot be traced back as far as the Hebrew-Aramaic and has no Greek etymology of Greek roots to support it.
Indeed, your teacher's explanation (and that of the English dictionaries) implies that Aramaic is the source for the transliterated Greek word "Bar-baros".
Why not simply admit that Aramaic is the source and that the Aramaic "Barbaria" is the precise word source merely transliterated with Greek letters into "Barbaros".
The word "Barbaros" is not a Greek word, by the admission of the Lexicographers. It is "Bar bar bar", which
your teacher admits is Aramaic !
So is "Bar Baria" and it means what its roots mean when combined.
You will notice , if you read the dictionaries carefully, that "Barbaros" did not initially have the negative connotation that was associated with it later on. It simply meant "foreigner".So it was not invented as a mockery of Aramaeans and their speech.
The English and Greek dictionaries are wrong. That is to be expected of the Western culture, which has ignored its Eastern roots. The western alphabets and numeral system came from the East. The Greeks and Romans adapted and embellished, but there is no mistaking the connection between the Greek Alpha ,Beta,Gamma,Delta and The Hebrew & Aramaic Alep , Bet ,Gimel(Gamal),Dalet.Etc.
The Semitic came first; then the Greek.
Blessings,
Dave
You have ignored the Hebrew root "Bar", meaning "Brutish, stupid, barbarous"-(Strong's Concordance). The root goes back to 1500 B.C. , being used in Exodus , Numbers and Deuteronomy. There it means "burning", "consuming".
It is used in the sense of "brutish,barbarous" in Psalms 49:11,73:22,94:8 & Proverbs 12:1,30:2.
These are all much earlier than Herodotus.
The LXX translated "Barim" (plural)myrvb as "barbaros" in Ezekiel 21:36.
Brown,Driver & Briggs Hebrew Lexicon gives the definition of this word in that place as "inhuman, cruel, barbarous men". Ezekiel lived long before Herodotus.
The Aramaic "Barbaria" is what Paul and I have said it is. It is the combination of two Aramaic roots - "Bar" & "Baria"-
"Son of the wilderness" or "Son of the foreigner". These Aramaic roots really mean these things for as far back as there were Aramaic roots. How is it that "Barbaria" , which sounds more like "Barbarian" than the Greek word , "Barbaros", means "nomad", or "foreigner", etymylogically, while the Greek word cannot be traced back as far as the Hebrew-Aramaic and has no Greek etymology of Greek roots to support it.
Indeed, your teacher's explanation (and that of the English dictionaries) implies that Aramaic is the source for the transliterated Greek word "Bar-baros".
Why not simply admit that Aramaic is the source and that the Aramaic "Barbaria" is the precise word source merely transliterated with Greek letters into "Barbaros".
The word "Barbaros" is not a Greek word, by the admission of the Lexicographers. It is "Bar bar bar", which
your teacher admits is Aramaic !
So is "Bar Baria" and it means what its roots mean when combined.
You will notice , if you read the dictionaries carefully, that "Barbaros" did not initially have the negative connotation that was associated with it later on. It simply meant "foreigner".So it was not invented as a mockery of Aramaeans and their speech.
The English and Greek dictionaries are wrong. That is to be expected of the Western culture, which has ignored its Eastern roots. The western alphabets and numeral system came from the East. The Greeks and Romans adapted and embellished, but there is no mistaking the connection between the Greek Alpha ,Beta,Gamma,Delta and The Hebrew & Aramaic Alep , Bet ,Gimel(Gamal),Dalet.Etc.
The Semitic came first; then the Greek.
Blessings,
Dave
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