09-19-2003, 03:42 PM
Quote:What other passages might contribute to our interpretation of this passage?
What is the 'law' that is mentioned in verse 34? How is this law applied in practice?
Law = Torah. Are Christian children still required to honor their parents under the "Law"? If yes, then women are still under the authority of their husbands. How is that put into practice as far as congregations?
1Ti 2:11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
1Ti 2:12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
1Ti 2:13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
1Ti 2:14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
1Ti 2:15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.
Some argue that 2:12 should be "over her husband", but that doesn't help much, since a woman can't be ordained in a congregation without it placing her over husband if he isn't ordained, and even if her husband also holds an ordained office that would that place her in a un-Scriptural position of being a "peer" of her husband. Notice how 1 Timothy 2:11-15 fits perfectly with 1 Corinthians 14:33-40. Unless Corinthians is interpreted wrongly and then they contradict eachother, which is proof of a wrong interpretation of Corinthians, because the most basic rule of Scriptural hermeneutics is that the Word doesn't contradict itself if properly understood.
Shlama, Craig