05-16-2004, 09:20 PM
How does the greek of mark 12:42 read?
I have heard it mentions lepta duo (two leptas) but that leptas were not used in the first century at all, and that they were not used in palestine (?).
If this is true does it not show that greek mark is a translation?
I have heard it mentions lepta duo (two leptas) but that leptas were not used in the first century at all, and that they were not used in palestine (?).
If this is true does it not show that greek mark is a translation?