04-07-2004, 02:28 AM
Akhi Dave,
You are confusing me.
If I show a verse which proves that Meshikha is human, and another verse which proves that Meshikha is Divine, then I reason that I have shown that Meshikha has both a human Qnoma and a Divine Qnoma.
Because if he is Human then he must have a Human Qnoma. If he is Divine, then he must have a Divine Qnoma.
Otherwise, he is neither human nor Divine, but some freak Frankenstein kind of monster that Eutyches created after the Greek "god-men" his ancestors, and apparently he, worshipped.
I will ask a different way:
There is no single passage in George Washington's biography that states that he was both WHITE and MALE. That being said, there are passages about him being WHITE. And there are yet other passages about him being a MALE.
Does that count as proof that he was both WHITE and MALE? Or, do we have to go by your criteria and insist that in order for George Washintong to have been a WHITE MALE - that a single passage must make the declaration that he was both WHITE and MALE?
Is it reasonable to conclude that he was WHITE and a MALE based on this evidence, or not? Do the two distinct passages count, or not?
As to ignoring the point of your previous post, it is directly related to this point which is far more important. I will come back to what is meant by 1Cor. 11:27 when the basis for my reply is established during this current exchange.
I see no point in explaining 1Cor. 11:27 to someone who doesn't grasp the concept, the meaning, of "Emmanu-el".
You are confusing me.
If I show a verse which proves that Meshikha is human, and another verse which proves that Meshikha is Divine, then I reason that I have shown that Meshikha has both a human Qnoma and a Divine Qnoma.
Because if he is Human then he must have a Human Qnoma. If he is Divine, then he must have a Divine Qnoma.
Otherwise, he is neither human nor Divine, but some freak Frankenstein kind of monster that Eutyches created after the Greek "god-men" his ancestors, and apparently he, worshipped.
I will ask a different way:
There is no single passage in George Washington's biography that states that he was both WHITE and MALE. That being said, there are passages about him being WHITE. And there are yet other passages about him being a MALE.
Does that count as proof that he was both WHITE and MALE? Or, do we have to go by your criteria and insist that in order for George Washintong to have been a WHITE MALE - that a single passage must make the declaration that he was both WHITE and MALE?
Is it reasonable to conclude that he was WHITE and a MALE based on this evidence, or not? Do the two distinct passages count, or not?
As to ignoring the point of your previous post, it is directly related to this point which is far more important. I will come back to what is meant by 1Cor. 11:27 when the basis for my reply is established during this current exchange.
I see no point in explaining 1Cor. 11:27 to someone who doesn't grasp the concept, the meaning, of "Emmanu-el".
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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