01-25-2025, 05:05 PM
Is John 3:1 best understood as conveying the meaning of:
"man of the Pharisees"?
"one of the Pharisees"?
What do you think was behind the Greek John 3:1's having "name to him"?
John 3:1 (Smith's Literal)
https://biblehub.com/john/3-1.htm
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/3-1.htm
And there was a man of the Pharisees, Nicodemus the name to him, a ruler of the Jews:
[Greek:
3686 onoma ὄνομα name
846 autō αὐτῷ to him]
John 3:1 (Etheridge)
https://dukhrana.com/peshitta/analyze_ve...ize=125%25
But there was one of the Pharishee whose name was Nikodimos, a ruler of the Jihudoyee:
Joh 3:1 (APNT)
https://www.aramaicdb.org/index.php/sear...rfilters=0
Now there was a certain man there from the Pharisees. His name was Nicodemus, a ruler of the Judeans.
Arthur Voobus and Henry Grady Davis, _The Gospels in Study and Preaching_ (1966), 301pp., Voobus on 3:
_Verses 1-10_
Vs 1.
First reading of this text reveals the flavor of Aramean Christian traditions, not a Hellenistic Christian background.
Vocabulary as well as construction savors of Aramaisms.
The Greek word ἄνθρωπος, generally translated "a man," is merely an Aramaic expression^1 [1: The term is... [a-n-sh]] which in this context means "certain."
Thus the precise meaning of this phrase is: "a certain one of the Pharisees."
The odd construction of ὄνομα αὐτῷ "the name to him," is also Aramaic, not Greek.
We can see how revolting this was to the taste of the Greek language by the change in the Codex Sinaiticus where it is substituted by a reading palatable to the Greek text.^2 [2: ... "with the name."]
"man of the Pharisees"?
"one of the Pharisees"?
What do you think was behind the Greek John 3:1's having "name to him"?
John 3:1 (Smith's Literal)
https://biblehub.com/john/3-1.htm
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/3-1.htm
And there was a man of the Pharisees, Nicodemus the name to him, a ruler of the Jews:
[Greek:
3686 onoma ὄνομα name
846 autō αὐτῷ to him]
John 3:1 (Etheridge)
https://dukhrana.com/peshitta/analyze_ve...ize=125%25
But there was one of the Pharishee whose name was Nikodimos, a ruler of the Jihudoyee:
Joh 3:1 (APNT)
https://www.aramaicdb.org/index.php/sear...rfilters=0
Now there was a certain man there from the Pharisees. His name was Nicodemus, a ruler of the Judeans.
Arthur Voobus and Henry Grady Davis, _The Gospels in Study and Preaching_ (1966), 301pp., Voobus on 3:
_Verses 1-10_
Vs 1.
First reading of this text reveals the flavor of Aramean Christian traditions, not a Hellenistic Christian background.
Vocabulary as well as construction savors of Aramaisms.
The Greek word ἄνθρωπος, generally translated "a man," is merely an Aramaic expression^1 [1: The term is... [a-n-sh]] which in this context means "certain."
Thus the precise meaning of this phrase is: "a certain one of the Pharisees."
The odd construction of ὄνομα αὐτῷ "the name to him," is also Aramaic, not Greek.
We can see how revolting this was to the taste of the Greek language by the change in the Codex Sinaiticus where it is substituted by a reading palatable to the Greek text.^2 [2: ... "with the name."]