09-04-2014, 06:24 PM
The answer would simply be that the Greek redactor chose at that point to transliterate the Aramaic. If the Greek was the original, why would Mark feel the need to preserve the Aramaic word spoken by Jesus in that particular place and not in others? The Aramaic Peshitta of Mark 5:41 says:
W'akhad b'aideh d'talitha w'amar leh talitha qum.
"And he took the hand of the young girl and said to her, Young girl, arise."- Aramaic-English Interlinear New Testament
Another sign of an Aramaic original in this verse is that some Greek manuscripts transliterate the Aramaic phrase in question as "Talitha qum" and others as "Talitha qumi" (compare the King James and Holman Christian Standard versions). The differences arises from the fact that unless an Aramaic word has no other vowels (like bi/"in me" or li/"to me"), the final yodh ("i") is silent.
W'akhad b'aideh d'talitha w'amar leh talitha qum.
"And he took the hand of the young girl and said to her, Young girl, arise."- Aramaic-English Interlinear New Testament
Another sign of an Aramaic original in this verse is that some Greek manuscripts transliterate the Aramaic phrase in question as "Talitha qum" and others as "Talitha qumi" (compare the King James and Holman Christian Standard versions). The differences arises from the fact that unless an Aramaic word has no other vowels (like bi/"in me" or li/"to me"), the final yodh ("i") is silent.