03-25-2014, 11:52 PM
Lets look at what this person is doing with his cut and paste jobs.
Here is an example:
Here is the Original article peice at StudyLight.org, which this one took from and made it his own...unless he is the same person.
Note: The above is statements are Copyright 2014? Benjamin Shaw. 'Aramaic Thoughts' @ <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.studylight.org/ls/at/print.cgi?a=212">http://www.studylight.org/ls/at/print.cgi?a=212</a><!-- m -->
Now here is this person's, (who wants to hide his real name) edited version, being presented as if it were his own (if it isn't). Showing (underlined) where he changes it around to make it look like those are his words (If they aren't).
The significance of this debate about the New Testament is the fact that the Greek of the New Testament was written by men whose native language was Aramaic, a Semitic language. They wrote the New Testament material in Greek, an Indo-European language. There are significant structural differences between Semitic and Indo-European languages, specifically between Aramaic (and Hebrew) and Greek. One significant difference is that the usual word order in Aramaic sentences is verb-subject-object. In Greek, the word order is usually subject-verb-object, as it is in English. In addition, word order is more significant in Aramaic than it is in Greek. In Greek, nouns (and adjectives) have case endings: nominative, genitive, dative, and accusative. The nominative case is the "subject" case. The accusative is the "direct object" case. The dative is the "indirect object" case. The genitive is the "possessive" case. (For any grammarians among you, I apologize for the preceding gross over-simplification, but this is not a grammar column.) Thus in Greek the function of a word in a sentence is indicated by its case ending. As a result, word order is less significant than in Aramaic or English.
If you are Benjamin Shaw, then you have nothing to be ashamed of by trying to pass his words off as yours, and have not again broken US Copyright laws...Let's hope you are, and can be honest about it.
.
Here is an example:
Here is the Original article peice at StudyLight.org, which this one took from and made it his own...unless he is the same person.
Quote:The significance of this for the New Testament is as follows: the Greek of the New Testament was written by men whose native language was Aramaic, a Semitic language. They wrote the New Testament material in Greek, an Indo-European language. There are significant structural differences between Semitic and Indo-European languages, specifically between Aramaic (and Hebrew) and Greek. One significant difference is that the usual word order in Aramaic sentences is verb-subject-object. In Greek, the word order is usually subject-verb-object, as it is in English. In addition, word order is more significant in Aramaic than it is in Greek. In Greek, nouns (and adjectives) have case endings: nominative, genitive, dative, and accusative. The nominative case is the "subject" case. The accusative is the "direct object" case. The dative is the "indirect object" case. The genitive is the "possessive" case. (For any grammarians among my readers, I apologize for the preceding gross over-simplification, but this is not a grammar column.) Thus in Greek the function of a word in a sentence is indicated by its case ending. As a result, word order is less significant than in Aramaic or English. For example, in Greek the sentence "the boy entered the building" could be stated by putting "the building" before "entered" and "the boy" after "entered." The case endings on "boy" and "building" would indicate which was the subject and which was the object. English is dependent on word order, as is Aramaic to a lesser extent.
Note: The above is statements are Copyright 2014? Benjamin Shaw. 'Aramaic Thoughts' @ <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.studylight.org/ls/at/print.cgi?a=212">http://www.studylight.org/ls/at/print.cgi?a=212</a><!-- m -->
Now here is this person's, (who wants to hide his real name) edited version, being presented as if it were his own (if it isn't). Showing (underlined) where he changes it around to make it look like those are his words (If they aren't).
The significance of this debate about the New Testament is the fact that the Greek of the New Testament was written by men whose native language was Aramaic, a Semitic language. They wrote the New Testament material in Greek, an Indo-European language. There are significant structural differences between Semitic and Indo-European languages, specifically between Aramaic (and Hebrew) and Greek. One significant difference is that the usual word order in Aramaic sentences is verb-subject-object. In Greek, the word order is usually subject-verb-object, as it is in English. In addition, word order is more significant in Aramaic than it is in Greek. In Greek, nouns (and adjectives) have case endings: nominative, genitive, dative, and accusative. The nominative case is the "subject" case. The accusative is the "direct object" case. The dative is the "indirect object" case. The genitive is the "possessive" case. (For any grammarians among you, I apologize for the preceding gross over-simplification, but this is not a grammar column.) Thus in Greek the function of a word in a sentence is indicated by its case ending. As a result, word order is less significant than in Aramaic or English.
If you are Benjamin Shaw, then you have nothing to be ashamed of by trying to pass his words off as yours, and have not again broken US Copyright laws...Let's hope you are, and can be honest about it.
.