08-26-2014, 06:03 PM
Sarah Wrote:Yes, the "be" in "be uplifted" is intrinsic to the form used in verse 12:7. This link should give you access to all the verses where this verb is used, probably over 50 times or so:Quote:2Corinthians 12:7 9- 10 And, that I might not be uplifted by the excellency of the revelations, there was imparted to me a thorn in my flesh, the angel of Satan, to buffet me, that I might not be uplifted. (Murdock).
Is be[i] in [i]be lifted up, intrinsic to the text?
Is the Aramaic word for uplifted used elsewhere in the Peshitta and if there anything intrinsic in it that would denote pride?
It seems the Greek might be interpretted "rise above." Is it possible this could be, "That I might not rise above . . . "
Why would Satan not want Paul to become proud? Yet he would want Paul to not rise above! His visions would serve to encourage him and lift him up, help him to rise above.
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I'm not sure myself as to what significance the reference to Satan has in this verse, if much of any.
But I would opine that "heighten" might be a better way to translate the aphel verb form, mainly because the root (RM) is the word for "high" or "height", so it seems logical to me that "heighten" would be the causative verbal meaning.
"... of not I to be heightened ... ", most likely meaning "of not I to be high minded". See Romans 11:20 for an example of this:
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