Question on 1 Tim.3:16

[zadiq_shophet]

It's been a while but hello to everyone.

Just one question on The part of the passage that says "G-d was manifest in the flesh".

I was reading in a reek exegetical book that the term for "G-d" there was actually "Who" in the older manuscripts. What does the peshitta or what is the rendering in the Aramaic texts.

Thanks in advance.

ZS.