Aramaic Primacy in the East

[distazo]

We decided to take out the Pericope Adulterae, but we left John 4:16?18 intact ?

+Shamasha

Paul,
Who's 'we'? Do you think I accuse the Eastern Church of leaving out? Probably the pericope was left out in the first century already.

@Chuck, I am not that ignorant to know that also Greek copies have it left out. <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->

It just illustrates, the text is not perfect. And you can offer all the evidence, the by some citated Mar who indicated a perfect text being at the altar in Edessa, is enough. You cannot convince me that it happens to be, that the khabouris family is the only text without textual errors.

But I already see, that doubting it is even with a slight error, is a great sin right? <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->

The eastern family text, is one of the best texts, and I already wrote to you, that the Western Text is candidate as well to be the -best text-. The notion that the Western Text is adapted to the Greek (the list with 'adaptions', is so tiny and insignificant), is just an assumption.

The Eastern text also lacks the 5 books, which is understandable, it was not give by an apostle, but it was given to the West and it stayed there for ages.

But if you and others believe that the khabouris is the sole text and probably even original, have it your way! <!-- s:xmas: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/xmas.gif" alt=":xmas:" title="Xmas" /><!-- s:xmas: -->