11-04-2013, 05:46 PM
I have a particular question about the Hebrew Matthew:
But while he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, ?Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.? NKJV Matthew 1:20-21
The last part don't make any sense in English or in Greek, only when you go back into the Hebrew
"And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus (Yeshua), for He will save (yoshia) His people from their sins."
Is is possible that this passage give us an indication that the Gospel of Matthew was written in Hebrew instead of Aramaic? I don't know much about Aramaic, but make more sense that the Angel was speaking in Hebrew and gave that name to Yeshua and explain his name.
But then you have another passage that it is recorded in the Peshitta and the Greek:
"So all this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying: ?Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,? which is translated, ?God with us.? NKJV Matthew 1:22-23
So in the end of the verse it says "which is translated" that means that it is not a Hebrew text, because they had to explain the meaning of Immanuel.
Is that a contradiction? It look like the text come from 2 different sources Hebrew and Aramaic. Or the main text is in Hebrew and "which is translated" is not there in the Shem Tob, DuTillet, etc or it is Aramaic even the name given to Yeshua don't make sense without the Hebrew.
What are your thoughts?
But while he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, ?Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.? NKJV Matthew 1:20-21
The last part don't make any sense in English or in Greek, only when you go back into the Hebrew
"And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus (Yeshua), for He will save (yoshia) His people from their sins."
Is is possible that this passage give us an indication that the Gospel of Matthew was written in Hebrew instead of Aramaic? I don't know much about Aramaic, but make more sense that the Angel was speaking in Hebrew and gave that name to Yeshua and explain his name.
But then you have another passage that it is recorded in the Peshitta and the Greek:
"So all this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying: ?Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,? which is translated, ?God with us.? NKJV Matthew 1:22-23
So in the end of the verse it says "which is translated" that means that it is not a Hebrew text, because they had to explain the meaning of Immanuel.
Is that a contradiction? It look like the text come from 2 different sources Hebrew and Aramaic. Or the main text is in Hebrew and "which is translated" is not there in the Shem Tob, DuTillet, etc or it is Aramaic even the name given to Yeshua don't make sense without the Hebrew.
What are your thoughts?