10-31-2013, 02:53 PM
distazo Wrote:Most people also do not think about the original Hebrew in Psalms 22:1 and that it also could mean 'spared'.
Why not? Why can't it be understood as "allowed?"
It certainly does not have to mean "forsaken", any more than the exact same Hebrew root as it's used in Leviticus 23:22 and other places. I didn't realize that the Israelites were being commanded to "forsake" the edges of their harvest for the poor and strangers, or that an ostrich was "forsaking" her egg by letting it warm in the sand.
If we believe that Christ felt "forsaken", after having anticipated and prophesied about this very moment for His entire ministry, then we have much more difficult theological questions to answer.
There is nothing "new" about this in the Aramaic - the understanding of those who have read from this text for centuries has been consistent. It is only "new" to those who have relied on the Indo-European language versions that portray a "rejected" and "forsaken" Messiah on the Cross.
Did Jesus utter His last words on the Cross, "Into Thy Hands I commit My Spirit", before taking His last breath, because He felt "forsaken" by God ? How does that make any sense, if at all, to you?
+Shamasha
Forsaken: From Middle English forsaken (?to reject, deny?), from Old English forsacan (?to dispute, quarrel, refuse, oppose?), from Proto-Germanic farsakana (?to renounce?). Akin to Dutch verzaken, Middle High German versachen (?to deny?)