11-10-2012, 04:30 PM
Hi All,
According to the SEDRA lexicon,
2 Cor 1:22, 5:5 and Ephesians 1:4 contains a word which is Greek.
However, when we look at the Greek, the Strongs lexicon says that G728 is a Hebrew word, origin H6162 (strongs).
When we look at CAL
(Pledge)
rbw, rbwt (arrabu, arrabuta) n.f. pledge, surety
1 pledge, surety Gal, CPA, Syr, JBAg, LJLA.
I can do nothing but conclude that the Greek is a transliteration of an Aramaic source-text.
In addition, 'araba', also exists in the Peshitta, eg. in Hebrews 7:22. However, the Greek Hebrews, has 'egguos', not some form of 'arrabon'.
What do you think?
According to the SEDRA lexicon,
2 Cor 1:22, 5:5 and Ephesians 1:4 contains a word which is Greek.
However, when we look at the Greek, the Strongs lexicon says that G728 is a Hebrew word, origin H6162 (strongs).
When we look at CAL
(Pledge)
rbw, rbwt (arrabu, arrabuta) n.f. pledge, surety
1 pledge, surety Gal, CPA, Syr, JBAg, LJLA.
I can do nothing but conclude that the Greek is a transliteration of an Aramaic source-text.
In addition, 'araba', also exists in the Peshitta, eg. in Hebrews 7:22. However, the Greek Hebrews, has 'egguos', not some form of 'arrabon'.
What do you think?