Vision Trance or Something Else

[Aaron S]

Note the permutation of the 'in a vision/trance' between the end of verse 17 and the start of verse 18. The Greek and Latin texts attach it to 17 [the King James text also in this verse, as all other Greek translations], and the Aramaic to 18; though this permutation cannot be resolved by simply moving the verse number, as the phrase in question appears after the verb in the Aramaic. But that aside, your question is about what it means. In the Aramaic: the word translated 'and I saw him' (wahzitheh) shares root with the word translated 'in a vision' (b'hezwa). This is not reflected in the Greek or Latin, of which Greek reads 'amazement' (from the same word we get extacy) which the Latin interprets as 'amazement of mind' or 'stupor of mind.'