02-09-2011, 08:26 PM
Possibly a little more clarity on this:
The Aramaic word-for-word reads:
that-in-it in-this teaching that-they-say
Note that the in-it in-this portion responds to the English in this very (very understood as particular).
The scribes of the Greek may have read the Aramaic as such:
that in this [very] one, that they call (or 'say is') a teaching
The main point I'm driving in showing it this way (no pun intended) is that the scribes of the Greek could have split the in-this teaching portion into 2 separate things rather than a phrase together. The word way would then be added to the mix in order to make the Greek read a little more intelligibly. This observation helps to draw a link from the Aramaic to the Greek, since the word teaching would process into hairesis ("heresy") as I explained before.
The Aramaic word-for-word reads:
that-in-it in-this teaching that-they-say
Note that the in-it in-this portion responds to the English in this very (very understood as particular).
The scribes of the Greek may have read the Aramaic as such:
that in this [very] one, that they call (or 'say is') a teaching
The main point I'm driving in showing it this way (no pun intended) is that the scribes of the Greek could have split the in-this teaching portion into 2 separate things rather than a phrase together. The word way would then be added to the mix in order to make the Greek read a little more intelligibly. This observation helps to draw a link from the Aramaic to the Greek, since the word teaching would process into hairesis ("heresy") as I explained before.