11-10-2003, 03:39 AM
Quote:Lamsa mistranslated the Aramaic, where the other translators were influenced by the Greek (as they saw the Greek as authoritative, and if the Greek said it meant "jump" they would use "jump").
The weight of lexical evidence rests upon "why have you allowed me?" (along the reasoning in english: "What reason am I here for?") as I see it :-)
Shlomo,
-Steve-o
Okay, why would a native Assyrian who was fluent in Aramaic make such a mistake? Will you give me the entire correct translation from Matthew 27:46 from the Peshitta? How much of Lamsa's translation is accurate? Thank you for taking time to help me learn more.
Jimmy

