"MarYah deception" ???

[whathell]

For those who think that (mor-yo`) is the unique and distinct personal name for YHWH, how do you reconcile that with Matthew 22:43-45; where it is used three times, but only once in reference to YHWH?

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And how do you reconcile the fact that Mark 12:37 and Luke 20:44 both use (mory) "my-lord" in the same instance where Matthew used (mor-yo`) in Matthew 22:45? In other words, if (mor-yo`) is so unique, why is it used interchangeably with (mory)?

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For those who think that (mor-yo`) is the unique and distinct personal name for YHWH, how do you reconcile that with Matthew 22:43-45; where it is used three times, but only once in reference to YHWH?

Greetings Jerry,

Just wanted to clear-up a little detail and ask you a question in the end.

1. It was "marya" (Eastern Aramaic Peshitta)

2. In Mat 22:43-45 there is mention of four words which mean "lord/master"

3. In Mat 22:43-45 "marya" referenced three times and lmar once

I see nothing here to reconcile ...all that has been stated is that "when"(1) the word "marya" is used in this scripture source, it is noted to reference only YHWH and not creatures (created beings).

1. That is to not to say there should not be more occurances where there is lack of this detail.

This scripture passage is very important because it brings-up the very subject of what the name "marya" represents.

Mat 22:42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David.

And it seems that even to this day we hear the same echo of this type of answer (son of man, son of Mary ...etc).

In response to this Y'shua questioned:

Mat 22:43. He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him LORD(marya), saying,
44. The LORD(marya) said unto my Lord(lmar), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

And even further questioned:

Mat 22:45. If David then call him LORD(marya), how is he his son?

This is my question to you as well ...can you answer this please?