Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
How established is Aramaic Primacy?
#6
Shlama Otto,

The thing about Romans 5:7 is that there is no simple way to mistranslate from the Peshitta to the Greek. A skeptic can easily say that the Peshitta could have "smoothed over" that part of the text by correcting an obvious error, but the Greek texts continued to preserve the text that they had from that point forward, even though the text reads clumsily. I'm not saying that I believe the Peshitta is a translation from Greek or anything like that, just that Romans 5:7 is not the slam-dunk piece of evidence that it is sometimes said to be.

bar Sinko
Reply


Messages In This Thread
How established is Aramaic Primacy? - by Andrej - 09-12-2010, 08:24 PM
Re: How established is Aramaic Primacy? - by bar Sinko - 09-19-2010, 12:06 AM

Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)