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rival conjecture of "aphraates readings"
#7
Kara,

It's all a continuation based on what 'authorities' have said in the past but no one was there when it all hapenned.
There is no first century authorithy which says: "Jesus spoke Greek, and the apostles wrote it down."

If you just compare the beauty of Jesus words in Aramaic, it's evident, in which language Jesus spoke proverbs.

Luke 7:32
Zamran Lakhun -
w'La raqdithun -

W'alYan Lakhun -
w'la Bakhithun -

John 4:48
an ??twatha utethmratha, -
la tekzoon la tehimnoon"

There are many of these rhymes which do not occur in Greek.
There is no law or rule that says: "If you translate from Greek to Aramaic, no matter what, Aramaic will beautifully form rhyme and rythm.

There are TOOO many of these samples, which show that Jesus words _must_ have been Aramaic. Not greek.


Historical evidence shows that Aramaic even in the synagogues, like Chorazin and Capernaum, had Aramaic inscriptions, including Greek inscriptions. So, it seems that Acts 6:1 was right?
Or do you think that all jews were Hellenists?
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Messages In This Thread
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 03-31-2010, 02:11 AM
Re: - by Kara - 03-31-2010, 03:34 AM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 03-31-2010, 02:04 PM
Re: rival conjecture of "aphraates readings" - by distazo - 04-01-2010, 09:00 PM

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