03-10-2010, 05:44 AM
Quote:Some (maybe even most) of the alleged alterations, like those pointed out by Bart Ehrman (who is referenced in the article you linked to) are not alterations at all, but variations caused by the greek being a translation of the peshitta.
As has been pointed out on this forum before, perhaps the clearest case of alteration in the Nt is hebrews 2:9 and Acts 20:28.
These alterations occur in Syriac and greek texts. So it is no secret really that christains who spoke Syriac, did on occaision alter even the NT.
Did you read the entire article? Syriac Christians, threatened by their Muslim overlords, altered their texts to self-affirm themselves. As for the Greek being a translation of the Peshitta, it is without doubt that you're convinced. This is great, but understand that your conclusion is based on correlational reasoning, such as:
a) The Greek texts has semitic structures. The Peshitta has semitic structures. Therefore, the Greek must be a translation of the Peshitta
b) The Greek texts lacks certain semiticisms, whereas the Peshitta preserves them, therefore the Greek must be a corruption of the Peshitta.
This is like saying: "The sky is blue, therefore, the color blue must come from the sky."
We must agree to disagree.