01-31-2009, 02:03 AM
January 30, 2009
It looks to me as if the Aramaic text of Acts 10: 1-3 were based on the Greek text.
The man???s name was ???Cornelie???. In Greek a male name ending in a vowel has a sigma ending in the nominative case. Hence it is written ???Cornelios??? in verse 1 to adhere to proper Greek grammar. In both cases it is translated the same into English, ???Cornelius??? .
The same story applies the reason the Messiah???s name varies in the Greek text. It is Yeshua in Aramaic. In Greek it becomes Iesou in the objective case and Iesous in the nominative case. Here are some variations in Greek based upon grammar rules.
Luke 1: 16 Iesous
Luke 1: 25 Iesoun
Luke 8: 34 Iesou
It is customary to translate all of these into English as ???Jesus???. That's also why "Barabba" is called "Barabbas" in the English BIble.
Since the Aramaic text seems to follow the Greek grammar rules, it looks to me as if the Aramaic is a translation of a Greek text in this portion of Acts.
Is there another explanation?
Otto
It looks to me as if the Aramaic text of Acts 10: 1-3 were based on the Greek text.
The man???s name was ???Cornelie???. In Greek a male name ending in a vowel has a sigma ending in the nominative case. Hence it is written ???Cornelios??? in verse 1 to adhere to proper Greek grammar. In both cases it is translated the same into English, ???Cornelius??? .
The same story applies the reason the Messiah???s name varies in the Greek text. It is Yeshua in Aramaic. In Greek it becomes Iesou in the objective case and Iesous in the nominative case. Here are some variations in Greek based upon grammar rules.
Luke 1: 16 Iesous
Luke 1: 25 Iesoun
Luke 8: 34 Iesou
It is customary to translate all of these into English as ???Jesus???. That's also why "Barabba" is called "Barabbas" in the English BIble.
Since the Aramaic text seems to follow the Greek grammar rules, it looks to me as if the Aramaic is a translation of a Greek text in this portion of Acts.
Is there another explanation?
Otto