Cornelius in Acts 10

[Burning one]

An example of the Greek being valuable would be Greek particles such "ev", "eis", "dia", "gar", and some other Greek particles which seem to nail down which way some Aramaic verses should go; if you know what I mean. All I am trying to say is that the Greek SEEMS to be more expressive or expansive and has more of a selection of words to use as when a subject is elaborated on. Now, is anyone confused or am I sounding like a university Professor - clear as noon??

Go with Y'shua,

Warmly,

Mike

Shlama akhi Mike,

i don't know if these particular terms are the best examples, though. haven't you noticed when doing textual comparisons that the above-cited terms seem to be prevalent in the realm of variants? in my limited Greek ventures of the NT, i have found so many of them, aside from simple spelling variations, come in the form of either omissions or inclusions of variations of the above terms.

i have no contest with the idea that Greek can indeed be more precise or expressive, but when there are the variants present in so many cases, how does one determine WHICH reading would be preferred in the Greek when the Aramaic only has one reading? see what i mean? although expressive and possibly able to help clarify a possibly obscure Aramaic rendering, the variants of the above-cited terms don't help to clarify anything.... <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/sad.gif" alt="" title="Sad" /><!-- s -->

just some thoughts on that point to consider! <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->


Chayim b'Moshiach (Life in Messiah),
Jeremy