02-11-2005, 09:19 PM
Hello
I would like to ask a question please, sorry if this has been answered elsewhere and I missed it.
One of the major arguments I have heard used by Greek primacists is that Christ quotes the OT in the Greek NT word-for-word, which is apparently to show the accuracy of the Septuagint.
I would like to ask, does Christ quote the Pshitta OT verbatim too? If not, what is the reason for the differences?
Thanks
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I would like to ask a question please, sorry if this has been answered elsewhere and I missed it.
One of the major arguments I have heard used by Greek primacists is that Christ quotes the OT in the Greek NT word-for-word, which is apparently to show the accuracy of the Septuagint.
I would like to ask, does Christ quote the Pshitta OT verbatim too? If not, what is the reason for the differences?
Thanks
<!-- s8) --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/cool.gif" alt="8)" title="Cool" /><!-- s8) -->