02-26-2005, 12:35 AM
Paul,
I read the Interlinear of Matthew 28:1-4, Mark 16:4-5, Luke 24:1-4, and John 20:1-11. It sems that Luke and John intend for us to understand that there were two angels present. However, in Matthew and Mark's accounts it seems that only one angel was there.
Am I correct in understanding that the word "angel" in those two versions (Matthew and Mark) can be understood as angels (plural) in Aramaic. Irrespective of the fact that this might be allowable by grammar can it be understood contextually?
Keith
I read the Interlinear of Matthew 28:1-4, Mark 16:4-5, Luke 24:1-4, and John 20:1-11. It sems that Luke and John intend for us to understand that there were two angels present. However, in Matthew and Mark's accounts it seems that only one angel was there.
Am I correct in understanding that the word "angel" in those two versions (Matthew and Mark) can be understood as angels (plural) in Aramaic. Irrespective of the fact that this might be allowable by grammar can it be understood contextually?
Keith