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21 ?? In the law it is written, With a foreign speech and in another tongue I will speak to this people; yet for all that, they will not listen to me, says the Lord.

What effect does this have on primacy? Which language is referred to?
Shlama Akhi,

I think the original prophecy (in Isaiah 28:11) is referring to Ephraim (Israel) and not to Judah.

In either case, at the time Isaiah lived Aramaic was a foreign tongue to all the Hebrew people (c.f., 2Kings 18:26) - so that Meshikha speaking in Aramaic is indeed a fulfillment of that prophecy (as seen by Isaiah's eyes.)
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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Thankyou. Clearly then, this supports that Jesus spoke Aramaic. However, I think we can't really use it, as it could just as easily fit with Greek.
I agree - besides, the original prophecy pertained to the house of Ephraim and not to the Jews.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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