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In Matti 2:23 we have "and came and dwelled in the city which is called nasrath" trcn. The greek text has nazwraios. (I think..beter check this))

Matti 4:13 we have "and he left nasrath"trcnl. The Alexandrian greek text has Nazara, which is a variation (I think ..need to check).

Why are these two words slightly different in Aramaic ?

Do the greek translations display evidence of dificulty in translating this Aramaic word?
Shlama Akhi Michael,

The second occurance merely has a Lamed proclitic prepended to the word itself. It's just an object marker for the verb ("left Nazareth"). I don't think this would have contributed to any confusion on Zorba's part - since this is a common literary convention in Aramiac.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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