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Paul quoted a "Greek Poete"??? (1Cor15:33)
Shlama w Shaina,

i am reading barner's note (biblical comentary) out here on 1cor 15:33 look what the explenation says:

Quote:Evil communications - The word rendered "communications" means, properly, a being together; companionship; close contact; converse. It refers not to discourse only, but to contact, or companionship. Paul quotes these words from Menander (in Sentent. Comicor. Greek p. 248, ed. Steph.), a Greek poet. He thus shows that he was, in some degree at least, familiar with the Greek writers; compare the note on Acts 17:28. Menander was a celebrated comic poet of Athens, educated under Theophrastus. His writings were replete with elegance, refined wit, and judicious observations. Of one hundred and eight comedies which he wrote, nothing remains but a few fragments. He is said to have drowned himself, in the 52nd year of his age, 293 b.c.,

any coment from Paul please? also the aramaic word is 'Shou'yata'
it can mean:
Quote:fable, story, talk
any coment from the experts?
Shlama akhi,

this much i can answer: the apostle Paul was brought up at the feet of Gamaliel, who was a prominent teacher from the Pharisee school of Hillel. the school of Hillel in Jerusalem held the notable position of not demonizing Greek wisdom, but included it as part of the teaching of its students. interestingly enough, if you look at the Greek poets the apostle Paul quotes, the quotes are taken from the first few lines of the the particular poet, which to me is significant. to me, it means he obviously had some degree of familiarity with the Greek wisdom writings, but it was probably only cursory. although we can't know for certain, i like to think of his knowledge as something along the lines of the depth one would likely gain from taking, say, an Overview of the Old Testament in a community college, or something. just my thoughts.

Chayim b'Moshiach,

Would like more details. Does the commentator believe that Paul's use of the phrase "homiliai kakai" only is a direct quotation from Menander? Or is it the complete sentence "evil communication corrupts good manners" ... I am suspecting it is the latter, since most 20th century translations place it in quotation marks (and the NIV includes a footnote attributing it likewise).

I'd like to know in what context the alleged quotation originally appeared. If Paulos is alluding to a well-known work it would make sense to want to know why he is doing so... what is he attempting to bring to mind for his readers? It is worth noting that the verse immediately preceding this one contains a quotation from Isaiah, such that it appears Paul is is using the one to answer the other, like this:

... If the dead do not rise, "Let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die!" (Isaiah) Do not be deceived: "Evil company corrupts good habits." (Menander)

It is difficult to prove that a 5-word phrase is a quotation, but the way to begin proving it is to show intent, i.e.; why Paulos would include this quote at this point in his letter.

Even if it can be shown that it was an intentional quotation, it wouldn't prove that the letter was originally written in Greek, any more than a quotation from Isaiah would prove it must have been written in Hebrew.


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