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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...
There is uncertainty about sound "Armaya".
One word can be pronounced differently with respective meanings
"Aramean" and "Gentile".
Is it true or it is some dictionary bias?
Somebody please prove that context shows that it can mean Gentile.
On the other side, using this idea one can wipe out the presence of the Arameans in the New Testament.
Personally, I do not believe a dictionary about something important unless context proves
I just refuse to blindly accept that "Armya" means Gentile so far.

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Re: 1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted... - by IPOstapyuk - 05-13-2013, 11:36 PM

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