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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...
Paul Younan Wrote:Hi Distazo.

Yes, it could go either way but I still think the gentile/pagan meaning is meant in this verse simply because the church is inclusive of all nations. There is no reason to single out Arameans or Greeks, as apart from the church.

This verse makes sense with Jews, Christians and Pagans (armaye...not Aramaye) as three distinct groups.

Thanks. I still have doubts in 12:2
you have been pagans (hanpe)
(Etheridge) that ye have been pagans ; and have been, without distinction, led away after idols, in which there is no speech.

So, if Armaye means 'pagans' why did Paul not use that word in 12:2?

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Re: 1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted... - by distazo - 07-29-2012, 05:46 AM

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