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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...
Hi Paul,

Good remark, for Greek, there is a specific word
Yawnaya (Greek, Hellenois) (Acts 16:1)
Gentile (Hanpa, Etnikoi ) (Matthew 6:7)

(Eg: John 7:35 mentions both 'ame' which is 'people' 'hanpe' which is 'gentiles')

But if Yawnaya -also- means 'Gentile', we have a strange verse in Acts 19:17.
It became known to Jews and Gentiles who lived in Efesos.

Well, wasn't Efesos _anyway_ a city of Gentiles or of Greeks? This sounds like a tautology to me! (Like mentioning that the sun, is round)

But if Aramaya means 'Syrians', it makes a lot more sense to me. Just like the current online Lamsa translation has this notion: The news became known to as well Syrians as to Jews who lived in Efesos. (and of course, this city originally was of Greek origin so it was full of Greeks, not just 'the jews and the Greek')

Then we also have 'nations' (where the Greek NT has etnos)
Galatians 2:14
"why do you compel the Gentile converts to live as do the Jews?"

To sum it up:
Aramaya, Ama: Gentiles, People
Greek: Jawnaya
Jews: Ebrayit

My question is: if the Jews and the Greeks are mentioned as a ethnic group, even the Scyths?, where are the Syrians?

Isn't Aramaya exactly meaning 'Syrian' and not just 'gentile' for which already exist the word Ama, in the Peshitta?

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Re: Corinthians aramaiac primacy doubted... - by distazo - 07-21-2012, 03:00 PM

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