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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...

Compare Colossians 3:11 in the Peshitta vs. the Greek. Which one makes more sense?

The verse is meant to be a parallelism, a listing of opposite pairs.

Peshitta reading: Jews/Gentiles, Circumcision/Uncircumcision, Greeks/Barbarians, Slaves/Freemen.

Greek reading: Jews/Greeks, Circumcision/Uncircumcision, Scythians/Barbarians, Slaves/Freemen.

Weren't the Scythians barbarians? How does that make any sense? The parallelism of opposites is broken, but not in the Peshitta. The parallelism that Paul so frequently employed, is preserved only in the Peshitta.

Besides all this, the word Scythian is found nowhere else in the scriptures. It was unheard of.


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Re: Corinthians aramaiac primacy doubted... - by Paul Younan - 07-21-2012, 03:45 PM

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