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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...
DrawCloser Wrote:
Paul Younan Wrote:Shlama Akhi.

The short answer is they translated it as gentile at first, which in many cases is defensible. Then they went to Greek after that.

Apparently Syrians or Arameans went extinct during the new testament period. <!-- sWink --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="Wink" title="Wink" /><!-- sWink -->. Everyone was Greek!

Paul, who 'translated it as gentile'? Did you mean the Zorbans or the CoE scribes?

Also, I was going over this thread, and forgive me please -- but in simple English may you tell me -- should the Peshitta text for [1 Cor. 1:22-24, 10:32] mean "Syrian" or "Gentile"?


I meant that as a joke, pointing to whoever translated those verses into Greek.

I would translate both chapters there as gentile. Perhaps 10:32 as pagan, even. The word Greek or Aramean doesn't make sense in the context of 10:32.


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Re: 1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted... - by Paul Younan - 07-26-2012, 06:42 PM

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